MEDICINE, SURGERY , OBSTETRICS AND PSYCHIATRY

MEDICINE, SURGERY , OBSTETRICS AND PSYCHIATRY

1. An elderly woman can read the newspaper, but has halos in bright sunlight.
A. Cataract
B. Glaucoma
C. Presbyopia
D. Macular Degeneration
2. Which of the following drugs decrease renin:
A. Beta Blockers
B. ACE Inhibitors
C. Spironolactone
D. Hydralazine
E. Centrally acting antihypertensives.
3. Newborn with respiratory distress , faint breath sounds on the left and with a scaphoid abdomen
A. Meconium aspiration syndrome
B. Situs inversus
C. Diaphragmatic hernia
4. Which nerve gives the sensation of taste to the anterior 2/3rd of tongue.
A. Trigeminal nerve
B. Facial nerve
C. Hypoglossal nerve
D. Glossopharyngeal nerve
5. A Patient who underwent a cholecystectomy, now comes with jaundice .what is the investigation
of choice.
A. Oral cholecystogram
B. CT scan
C. Ultrasound
D. Sr. Creatinine
E. Upper GI Studies
6. Regarding pseudobulbar palsy AOF is true …except
A. Wasting and fasciculation of tongue
B. Jaw jerk decreased
C. Loss of sphincter control
D. Gag reflex present
7. Regarding ACE Inhibitors, which is not true :
A. Used in the treatment of heart failure
B. Used as first line in the treatment of Hypertension
C. Used in Diabetics
D. Cannot be used in the treatment of Aortic stenosis.
8. Regarding CRF and Calcium metabolism
A. Ca is decreased
B. Ca is increased
C. There is no relation between CRF and Ca
D. Causes Osteomalacia.
9. Most significant complication of massive blood transfusion. ( *)
A. Pulmonary oedema
B. Change in acid base balance
C. DIC and coagulation defect
D. Increased CVP
10. Regarding CRF and Potassium all of the following reduce potassium except (treatment of
hyperkalemia) *
A. Calcium Carbonate
B. Glucose and Insulin
C. Dialysis
D. Resonium
E. Sodium Bicarbonate
11. 55year old patient with dysphagia for solids with a previous history of reflux
A. Carcinoma oesophagus
B. Stricture
C. Scleroderma
D. Achalasia \
E. Raynaud’s syndrome
12. An infant came with pneumonia , X ray showed consolidation of a lobe with round
translucencies and a small pleural effusion. What is the treatment of choice?
A. Crystalline penicillin
B. Flucloxicillin
C. Amoxicillin / clavulanic acid
D. Tetracycline
13. A new born was peripherally cyanosed and crying lustily ..the axillary temperature recorded
was 37.2degrees what would be the next step( *)
A. Take an x ray
B. reassure
C. oxygen
D. urine culture
14. 34 year old lady on phenytoin wants to take OCP’S what can be prescribed
A. Microgynon 30
B. Microgynon 50
C. Triphasic
D. Oetradiol patches
E. Progesterone only pill
15. 6 months old boy brought by his mother with a temperature of 38.9degrees with bilateral
wheezing .his resp. rate was 36/min .other members in the family had a h/o similar illness. There
is family h/o asthma. What is the diagnosis?
A. Asthma
B. Foreign body
C. Bronchiolitis
D. Pneumonia
16. 16 weeks p
regnant lady came for a check up ,for the diagnosis of foetal anencephaly all are true except
A. increased alpha feto protein
B. increased beta HCG
C. nuchal thickness
D. decreased alpha fetoprotein
17. Regarding tubal pregnancy most suggestive is (*)
A. –ve beta HCG
B. ultrasound showing empty uterus
C. ultrasound showing tubal mass
D. CT scan
18. 10 weeks old child with persistent unilateral eye discharge responding to antibiotics but
recurring
A. nasolacrimal duct obstruction
B. gonococcus
C. Chlamydia
19. unilateral foul smelling ,bloodstained discharge from nose
A. foreign body
B. nasal polyps
C. Atopy
D. Rhinitis
20. 10 year old came to your surgery with scrotal pain .on examination both testis are in the
scrotum , next management :
A. do an ultrasound
B. arrange surgery
C. write some analgesic and send him home
D. do nothing it will go away
E. tell his mother to review back again when the pain recurs
21. 19 year old girl had a binge of drinking the previous night with lower abdominal tenderness and
all investigations and testis are normal (*)
A. treat as gastroenteritis
B. tell her it is due to alcohol
C. not sure of diagnosis ;come back for review
D. Give analgesic and antiemetic and send her home.
22. Reversal of non depolarising skeletal muscle blockade
A. Pyridostigmine
B. Neostigmine
C. Atropine
D. Benzhexol
23. differentiation between schizophrenia and shcizophreniform disorders is by (*)
A. affective symptoms
B. duration of symptoms
C. lack of insight
D. female and male ratio
24. A lady with a previous divorce now comes to you with a seductive behaviour
A. Narcicistic
B. Histrionic
C. Borderline
25. In Australia bush fires are common either accidentally or due to some people lighting fire
deliberately, which is true regarding pyromaniacs.
A. Done for notoriety and publicity
B. To hide their acts
C. As they like to play with fire
D. Set fire and get panic attacks
E. For satisfaction.
26. People living near airport have(*)
A. Explosive personality
B. Insomnia
C. Agitated
D. Depression
27. Regarding panic attacks all are true except (*)
A. 20% have had at least one attack in their lifetime.
B. With out agoraphobia it is equal in male and female
C. Always avoid precipitating factors
D. Usually occurs in the twenties
28. Regarding treatment of chronic duodenal ulcer
A. eradication of H pylori
B. H2 blockers
C. PPI
D. Selective vagotomy
29. 4 year old boy with fever and malaise , lymphocyte count –normal, platelets decreased ,Hb
decreased
A. ALL
B. Infectious mononucleosis
C. Hodgkin’s disease
30. Pregnant lady with Group B strep infection, what is true.
A. Penicillin to be given as prophylaxis
B. Bolus dose of penicillin before labour
C. Take a swab and if B strep present then treat.
31. Regarding MI , maximum deaths occur in (*)
A. with in 1st 2 hrs
B. 2 to 12hrs
C. 12 to 24hrs
D. 2 to 7days
E. after discharge
32. A case of stable angina with chest pain. On examination enzymes, ECG are normal but as you
were examining him he belches and says he feels better - what would you do (*)
A. Admit to coronary care Unit and do ECG monitoring.
B. send him home with appointment to cardiologist
C. refer to gastroenterologist
D. if enzymes normal then probably no cardiac
33. With regard to primary health care all are true except(*)
A. 1/3rd of population come to a GP with psychiatric symptoms.
B. Most patients are psychotic
C. Only few are referred to psychiatrists
D. Alcoholics and drug abuse frequently overlooked by GP’s
34. A patient with known Parkinson’s disease for 2 yrs on long term treatment now comes with
tongue protruding out. What would you do ?
A. Decrease levodopa +carbidopa
B. Increase levodopa + carbidopa
C. Stop levodopa +carbidopa
D. Treat with chlorpromazine
35. In a case of twin pregnancy all are true except
A. asymmetrical growth retardation
B. anaemia in pregnancy
C. premature labour
D. acute polyhydramnios
E. 2nd twin foetal malformation.
36. 60 yr old female with diarrhoea and profuse mucous discharge .what could be the cause
A. Cron’s disease
B. ulcerative colitis
C. villous adenoma
D. rectal Ca
E. acute mesenteric ischaemia
37. How do you differentiate between anorectal and colorectal cause of bleeding(*)
A. Blood mixed with stools
B. Fresh bright bleeding
C. Mucoid discharge
D. Pain during defecation
38. most common cause of severe chest pain in pericarditis
A. viral pericarditis
B. tuberculosis
C. Mycoplasma
D. Uraemia
E. MI
39. all of the following are causes of supraclavicular mass except (*)
A. stomach Ca
B. cervical rib
C. breast Ca
D. subclavian thrombosis
E. subclavian artery aneurysm
40. which of the following has worst prognosis
A. advanced breast Ca
B. choriocarcinoma
C. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
D. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
E. Prostate carcinoma
41. Which of the following does not metastasise to brain
A. Malignant melanoma
B. Prostatic Ca
C. Lung Ca
D. Breast Ca
42. 40 yr old lady with a 2 cm palpable breast lump on the right side .What is the next step.(*)
A. FNAC
B. Ultrasound
C. Lumpectomy
D. Mammography
E. Radical mastectomy
43. A lady with a palpable breast lump, FNAC showed few malignant cells regarding conservative
surgery what is true? (*)
A. Assess for oestrogen receptors
B. Bone marrow biopsy
C. Axillary lymph node sampling
D. Mammography
44. A lady with a breast cancer on left side operated 2yrs ago now detects a small lump on the
right side .how do you explain the lump
A. Cancer arising de novo
B. Fibroadenoma
C. Metastasis from the previous one
45. facial nerve palsy can be associated with all of the following except
A. chronic parotitis
B. Ca parotid
C. Acoustic neuroma
D. # base of the skull
46. A middle aged woman with deafness and loss of corneal reflex but with no tinnitus
A. vestibular neuronitis
B. Meniere’s disease
C. Acoustic neuroma
D. Multiple sclerosis
47. Ptosis ,dysphagia ,ataxia ,on the same side and spinothalamic loss on the opposite side:
A. vertebral artery occlusion
B. basilar artery occlusion
C. MS – midbrain
D. Posterior communicating artery syndrome (PICA)
48. 22yr old lady with diplopia. On closing the right eye ,the medial side of the image is lost ( i.e
diplopia on looking laterally ) what is the diagnosis
A. left 6th nerve palsy
B. left 3rd nerve palsy
C. right 6th nerve palsy
D. posterior cranial fossa tumour
49. Regarding a patient with hepatoma , which of the following is least likely
A. Hepatitis B
B. Hepatitis C
C. Hemochromatosis
D. CMV
E. Alcoholic cirrhosis
50. In which of the following cell mediated immunity is lost first followed by loss of humoral
immunity (*)
A. CLL
B. HIV
C. RA
51. which of the following is not a carcinogen (*)
A. EBV
B. CMV
C. Hep C
D. HIV
52. Picture of a lesion at the lateral angle of the eye what is the treatment ( it’s a BCC) :
A. Surgical removal
B. Excision and radiation
C. Cryotherapy
D. Chemotherapy
E. Local steroids
53. Picture of swelling at the outer angle of the eye .it is described as being hard and present since
birth:
A. Osteoma
B. Sebaceous cyst
C. Lipoma
54. picture of a large swelling on the back near the left scapula
A. lipoma
B. sebaceous cyst
C. 2ndary breast
55. Picture of the face with a non itchy rash like lesion on the cheeks, forehead.
A. SLE
B. Seborrheic dermatitis
C. Acne rosacea
D. Dermatomyositis
56. post operative specimen ( testicle with epididymis )
A. TB
B. Epididymoorchitis
C. Teratoma
D. Torsion of testis
E. seminoma
57. A chest x ray of a child showing consolidation > neutrophils increased. What could be the cause
A. Klebsiella pneumonia
B. Group B streptococcus
C. Staphylococcus
D. Mycoplasma pneumonia
58. A lesion (looks like an ulcer) diagnosis?
A. Amelanotic melanoma
B. Implantation dermoid
C. Basal cell carcinoma
59. ECG- patient is a diabetic and he is dyspnoeic .diagnosis(*)
A. Inferior wall MI
B. Anterior wall MI
C. Pericarditis
D. WPW syndrome
E. Pulmonary embolism
60. ECG patient has palpitations, otherwise normal (*)
A. Atrial fibrillation
B. Atrial flutter with variable block
C. WPW syndrome with accelerated beats
61. ECG patient comes with sweating , palpitations
A. Ventricular ectopic
B. Ventricular tachycardia
C. Atrial fibrillation
D. RBBB
62. How do you treat WPW in a patient with a previous history of collapse?
A. Beta blockers
B. Cardioversion
C. Radiofrequency ablation abnormal tract
D. Surgical ablation
D. Long term verapamil
63. 40 yr old man with SVT 160/min ..Patient not arousable , Treatment is
A. cardioversion
B. adenosine
C. procainamide
D. verapamil
E. take an ECG
64. A child with heart rate of 220/min otherwise normal , how do you manage
A. cold stimulus
B. Valsalva
C. Verapamil
D. DC shock
65. All of the following are side effects of depot medroxyprogesterone , except(*)
A. Amenorrhoea
B. Weight gain
C. Depression
D. Used with oestrogen causes stratification and cornification of vagina
E. hypotension
66. 20yr old man came with pain referring from groin to loin to tip of penis brought a sample of
urine mixed with blood and asks for a shot of pethidine to relieve his pain. What is the next step
A. give him an injection of pethidine to relieve his pain
B. KUB
C. Ultrasound abdomen
D. Examine fresh urine sample
67. 12yr old boy with bee sting with wheeze ,with swollen lips ,tachycardia , restless, immediate
treatment(*)
A. adrenaline IM
B. hydrocortisone IV
C. oxygen
D. antihistamine
E. give NSAID and send him home
68. Young man with tachycardia, BP 90/70,Pulse 140 difficulty in breathing (*)
A. start two IV line to Hartmann
B. wide bore needle
C. tube drainage
69. RTA respiratory distress mediastinal shift to opposite side with emphysema in the neck .what is
the diagnosis
A. Tension pneumothorax
B. Hemothorax
C. Cardiac tamponade
D. Bronchial tear
70. Newborn male with normal genitalia , which is true
A. 47xxy
B. 46xy with androgen insensitivity
C. mother treatment with cyproterone from 8 weeks
71. 16yr old girl came with her mother with no menstrual , breast development is normal
(testicular feminisation)
A. 45xo
B. 46xy
C. Turner syndrome
72. After MVA a patient is dyspnoeic BP 100/70, HR 110/min, Breath sounds decreased on left side,
heart sounds normal, JVP raised, next step in management (*)
A. IV fluids
B. Wide bore thoracostomy
C. Tube thoracostomy
73. A patient with excruciating chest pain and a diastolic murmur .what does the X-ray show (*)
A. widening of mediastinum
B. increased left ventricular size
C. trachea shifted to left
74. A child with fever malaise, sore throat …white papillae on the tongue and later a sandpapery
rash...what is the diagnosis
A. measles
B. rubella
C. scarlet fever
75. A child with fever of 3 days duration and a rash develops when fever subsides
A. Rubella
B. Roseola
C. Erythema multiforme
76. An unconscious man (a known COPD case) was brought to the emergency, on examination
there was a bruise on the parietal area and needle mark in the cubital fossa. His ABG was as
follows (PH: 7.26, PCO2: 60, PO2: 50) His previous ABG showed (PH: 7.35, PCO2: 30, PO2: 60)
.what is the diagnosis? (*)
A. Narcotic
B. Subdural haemorrhage
C. Subarachnoid haemorrhage
77. 16 weeks pregnant woman with proteinuria 3 +, hematuria, and hypertension (*)
A. PIH
B. Pre-existing renal disease
C. Essential hypertension
D. Pregnancy will continue until term
78. Which of the following is familial
A. papillary carcinoma
B. medullary carcinoma
C. follicular Ca
D. anaplastic
E. secondary Ca of thyroid
79. A patient with HIV and cough (respiratory symptoms) has a Mantoux 5mm +ve , what is the
next step
A. INH prophylaxis
B. Zidovudine
C. Interferon
80. Patient with HIV +ve status ..what is true (*)
A. Life long infectivity
B. He has AIDS
C. Can transmit through saliva
D. He should avoid sexual intercourse
81. Tremor can be present in all of the following except
A. hyperthyroidism
B. hypothyroidism
C. benign essential tremor
D. Parkinsonism
E. chronic liver disease
82. A lady with tremor on lifting the phone and disappears when she looks at her hand with

THYROID MCQS

Thyroid MCQs

 

1. propylthiouracil has a longer half-life than carbimazole.

2.  carbimazole and propylthiouracil act to block thyroid hormone       synthesis by inhibiting thyroid peroxidase.

3.It is prudent to have a white cell count (WCC) during any febrile illness for all patients taking antithyroid medication.

4.life-threatening agranulocytosis, which is defined as a neutrophil count of less than 0.05x10⁹/L.

5. Cluster of symptoms and signs of agranulocytosis includes mouth ulcers, sore throat, fever, and rash.

 

 

Answers

1.    FALSE-Carbimazole has longer half-life so prescribed one or twice daily but PTU three times daily.

2.    TRUE-Mechanism of action

3.    FALSE -Need a differential WCC (Febrile neutropenia has serious consequences)

4.    TRUE-

5.    TRUE-Need patient education preferably written instruction to stop the antithyroid medications immediately.

ASTHMA TRIGGERS

ASTHMA MCQS

 

Following are considered as asthma triggers that needs to be avoided.

 

1.    Cigarette smoke

2.    Laughter

3.    Exercise

4.    Animal allergens (e.g.  pets)

5.    Bee products (e.g., pollen, propolis, royal jelly)

 

Answers

1.    TRUE-Always avoid

2.    FALSE-Unavoidable trigger

3.    FALSE-Unavoidable trigger

4.    TRUE-Avoid or reduce where possible

5.    TRUE-Avoid or reduce where possible.

THUNDERSTORM ASTHMA

THUNDERSTORM ASTHMA

 

1.      1.Seen in areas   with high ryegrass pollen concentrations in the air.

2.      2. Can cause life threatening allergic asthma flare ups.

3.      3. Can happen with no history of asthma but in individuals sensitized ryegrass pollen.

4.      4. Can happen with undiagnosed asthma.

5.      5. Lack of inhaled corticosteroid preventer treatment has been identified as a risk factor.

 

1.TRUE

2. TRUE

3. TRUE

4. TRUE

5.TRUE

ASTHMA MCQS

http://amcexams.blogspot.com/?spref=gb

ASTHMA MCQs

 

 

a.      Anyone can develop asthma at any age.

b.      History of allergy is necessary to diagnose asthma

c.      Finding of variable expiratory airflow limitation on spirometry confirms the diagnosis.

d.      In young children asthma is diagnosed without lung function tests.

e.      Silent asthma may present with unique symptoms.

 

 

a.      TURE

b.      FALSE

c.      TRUE-In adult asthma diagnosis

d.      TRUE-when spirometry is not possible and involves  symptoms observation for months or years.

e.      TURE-No hallmark symptoms like wheezing or cough but respiratory distress with other symptoms such as yawning ,signing or rapid shallow breathing.

Medicine MCQs with Foot Notes

HYPERTHYROIDISM

1. IS THIS HYPERTHYROIDISM OR THYROIDITIS ?

                                                HOW TO DIFFERENTIATE?

                                                             HOW THE TREATMENT DIFFER ?

Most of the time this is where the questions are set💥

Causes of Hypertyroidism=high hormone levels

                                            Graves Disease

                                           Toxic multinodular goite

                                           Toxic solitary nodule

                                           Thyroiditis----------Transient -Treatment is targeted symptom control and anti-thyroid medications are not warranted.

Main differential diagnoses of eating disorders

http://amcexams.blogspot.com/?spref=gb

.Main differential diagnoses of eating disorders
Malabsorption syndromes •
 Inflammatory bowel disease •
 Coeliac disease Endocrine •
 Diabetes mellitus •
 Hyperthyroidism Malignancy •
 Central nervous system tumours, lymphoma, leukaemia Other psychiatric disorders •
Depression •
 Obsessive compulsive disorder •
 Anxiety disorder

Eating Disorders

Table 1. DSM-IV diagnostic criteria for common eating disorders2 Anorexia nervosa 1. Refusal to maintain body weight at or above a minimally normal weight for age and height (eg. weight loss leading to maintenance of body weight less than 85% of that expected, or failure to make expected weight gain during period of growth, leading to body weight less than 85% of that expected) 2. Intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat, even though underweight 3. Disturbance in the way that body weight, size or shape is experienced, undue influence of body shape and weight on self evaluation, or denial of the seriousness of current low body weight 4. In postmenarchal females, amenorrhoea, ie. the absence of at least three consecutive menstrual cycles Types • Restricting type: during the current episode of anorexia nervosa, the person has not regularly engaged in binge eating or purging behaviour (self induced vomiting, misuse of laxatives, diuretics, or enemas) • Binge eating/purging type: during the current episode of anorexia nervosa, the person has regularly engaged in binge eating or purging behaviour (ie. self induced vomiting or the misuse of laxatives, diuretics, or enemas) Bulimia nervosa 1. Recurrent episodes of binge eating. An episode of binge eating is characterised by both of the following: • Eating in a discrete period of time (eg. within any 2 hour period) an amount of food that is definitely larger than most people would eat during a similar period of time and under similar circumstances • A sense of lack of control over eating during the episode (eg. a feeling that one cannot stop eating or control what, or how much, one is eating) 2. Recurrent inappropriate compensatory behaviour in order to prevent weight gain such as self induced vomiting, misuse of laxatives, diuretics, enemas, or other medications, fasting, or excessive exercise 3. Binge eating and inappropriate compensatory behaviours both occur on average at least twice a week for 3 months 4. Self evaluation is unduly influenced by body shape and weight 5. The disturbance does not occur exclusively during episodes of anorexia nervosa Types • Purging type: during the current episode of bulimia nervosa, the person has regularly engaged in self induced vomiting or the misuse of laxatives, diuretics, or enemas • Nonpurging type: during the current episode of bulimia nervosa, the person has used other inappropriate compensatory behaviours such as fasting or excessive exercise, but has not regularly engaged in self induced vomiting or the misuse of laxatives, diuretics, or enemas Reprinted from Australian Family Physician Vol. 40, No. 3, march 2011 109 FOCUS Eating disorders – early identification in general practice

METABOLIC SYNDROME KEY POINTS

1.Metabolic syndrome is
increasing but often goes
unrecognised.

2.Measuring insulin resistance is
unnecessary – measuring waist
circumference is simpler and
more important.

3.Ethnicity needs to be
considered when cut-off points
for waist measurement are used
to screen for patients at risk of
metabolic syndrome.

4.Risk factors for metabolic
syndrome often cluster together,
and the increase in risk is
multiplied rather than added.

5.Modest weight loss (5kg) and/or
increased physical exercise
reduce the risk of developing
diabetes in patients with metabolic syndrome.

Waist Target Parameters

Country/ethnic group Waist circumference

Europids Male 􀀪 94 cm
In the US, the Female 􀀪 80 cm
ATP III values
(10 cm male;
88cm female)
are likely to
continue to be
used for clinical
purposes.
South Asians Male 􀀪 90 cm
Based on a Female 􀀪 80 cm
Chinese, Malay
and Asian-Indian
population
Chinese Male 􀀪 90 cm
Female 􀀪 80 cm
Japanese Male 􀀪 90 cm
Female 􀀪 80 cm
Ethnic South and Use South Asian
Central Americans recommendations until
more specific data
are available.
Sub-Saharan Use European data until
Africans more specific data are
available.
Eastern Use European
Mediterranean data until more specific
and Middle East data are available.

Preventing Recurrent DVT

A patient with successfully treated
DVT remains at increased risk of
DVT or PE for life and will need prophylaxis
at times. Prophylaxis (with,
for example, enoxaparin 40mg daily)
should begin 12 hours before elective
surgery.
In orthopaedic surgery, it should
be continued at this dose for three
weeks after discharge from hospital2.
Early remobilisation and compression
stockings should be used routinely
for all surgery. Intra-operative
calf compression machines are often
used in prolonged elective surgery.
High-risk medical patients (eg,
those likely to be inpatients for more
than five days) should receive routine
prophylaxis whether or not they
have had a prior DVT.
Seek advice if the patient has renal
impairment because LMW heparins
accumulate quickly in patients with
moderate to severe renal failure.
All women with previous DVT or
artificial heart valves should receive
daily heparin prophylaxis during
pregnancy. Haematological review is
recommended in those with diagnosed
thrombophilia (deficiency of
anti-thrombin III, protein C or S,
mutations of factor V or prothrombin
genes), as more intense prophylaxis
may be needed in some.
Patients with a past history of
DVT who are planning air travel for
more than four hours should be
given recommendations in writing:
• Self-inject 40mg enoxaparin before
each separate flight (not including
refuelling stops)
• Ask for a seat with good leg room
• Accept every non-alcoholic
beverage offered
• Minimise alcohol consumption
• Perform in-seat exercises recommended
by the airline.
National guidelines do not recommend
frequent walking around the
cabin because of the risk of turbulence.
Aspirin does more harm than
good in air travellers.
References
Current Diagnosis of Venous Thromboembolism
in Primary Care: A Clinical Practice Guideline,
American Academy of Family Physicians and
the American College of Physicians.
Annals of Internal Medicine: p57- 62: Vol 5:
No 1: January/February 2007
1. Palareti G., Cosmi B., Legnani C., et al. DDimer
Testing to Determine the Duration of
Anticoagulation Therapy. N Engl J Med 2006;
355:1780-1789, Oct 26, 2006.
2. TGA-approved product information for

HEALTH INSURANCE

HEALTH INSURANCE IS ONE OF THE MOST IMPORTANT THING YOU NEED TO HAVE WHEN YOU ARRIVE IN AUSTRALIA.IT IS A MUST I WOULD SAY.THERE ARE MANY OPTIONS TO SELECT FROM

BOX 1: Asthma Control Questionnaire 5-item version

Circle the number of the response that best describes how you have been during the past week

1. On average, during the past week, how often were you woken by your asthma during the night?

0. Never 1. Hardly ever 2. A few times 3. Several times 4. Many times 5. A great many times 6. Unable to sleep because of asthma

2. On average, during the past week, how bad were your asthma symptoms when you woke up in the morning?

0. No symptoms 1. Very mild symptoms 2. Mild symptoms 3. Moderate symptoms 4. Quite severe symptoms 5. Severe symptoms 6. Very severe symptoms

3. In general, during the past week, how limited were you in your activities because of your asthma?

0. Not limited at all 1. Very slightly limited 2. Slightly limited 3. Moderately limited 4. Very limited 5. Extremely limited 6. Totally limited

4. In general, during the past week, how much shortness of breath did you experience because of your asthma?

0. None 1. Very little 2. A little 3. A moderate amount 4. Quite a lot 5. A great deal 6. A very great deal

5. In general, during the past week, how much of the time did you wheeze?

0. Not at all 1. Hardly any of the time 2. A little of the time 3. A moderate amount of the time 4. A lot of the time 5. Most of the time 6. All of the time.

able 1. Primary features of each rosacea subtype and their specific therapies 4
Rosacea subtype	Clinical features	Therapies available
Erythematotelangiectatic	Transient erythema and persistent centrofacial erythema with or without telangiectasia.	Topical brimonidine Oral isotretinoin Laser/light therapy
Papulopustular	Persistent centrofacial erythema with transient centrofacial papules and/or pustules	Topical metronidazole/ azelaic acid/ivermectin Oral doxycycline/erythromycin/minocycline Oral isotretinoin
Phymatous	Thickened skin and irregular surface nodularities, most commonly involving the nose (rhinophyma) though it can involve other facial convexities and the ears as well	Oral isotretinoin Surgical intervention
Ocular	Foreign body sensation in the eye; burning or stinging sensation; dryness; itching; ocular photosensitivity; blurred vision; scleral telangiectasia; and/or periorbital oedema	Eyelid hygiene and lubricant eye drops Topical cyclosporin/metronidazole Oral doxycycline/azithromycin